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Question : 5 of 27
Marks: +1, -0
You have learnt that a travelling wave in one dimension is represented by a function y=f(x,t)y = f (x, t) where x and t must appear in the combination (xvt)(x - vt) to (x+vt)(x + vt), i.e. y=f(x±vt)y = f (x \pm vt). Is the converse true? Examine if the following functions for y can possibly represent a travelling wave :
(a) (xvt)2(x - vt)^2
(b) log[x+vtx0]\log\left[\frac{x + vt}{x_0}\right]
(c) 1x+vt\frac{1}{x + vt}
Solution:  
No, the converse is not true.
The basic requirement for a wave function to represent a travelling wave is that for all values of x and t, the wave function must have a finite value.
Out of the given functions for y, none of these satisfies this condition, so these functions do not represent a travelling wave.
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