Large national budget deficits do not cause large trade deficits. If they did, countries with the largest budget deficits would also have the largest trade deficits. In fact, when deficit figures are adjusted so that different countries are reliably comparable to each other, there is no such correlation.
If the statements above are all true, which of the following can properly be inferred on the basis of them?

Question

Examsnet · Accepted Answer

Correct Answer is : Reducing a country’s national budget deficit will not necessarily result in a lowering of any trade deficit that country may have.

GMAT Verbal Reasoning Practice Test 5