I does not hold for n = 4 ⇒ I is false For statement II n(n+1)2|n! ⇒(n+1)2|(n−1)! Let n = 3k – 1, k > 3, k ∈ N n + 1 = 3k, n – 1 = 3k – 2 (n – 1)! = (3k – 2)! = (3k – 2) × (3(k – 1)) × … × (2k + 1) (2k) (2k – 1) …× (k + 1) k(k – 1) … 3 × 2 × 1 RHS contains 32,k2 hence is divisible by (3k)2. ⇒ (n – 1)! is divisible by (n+1)2 ⇒ II is true.